Talk:Many-one reduction

wrong use of inverse function

The first part of the definition for formal languages ends with the statement that $A=f^{-1}(B)$. I think this is wrong, because $f$ does not need to be a surjective function and therefore $f^{-1}$ does not need to exist.

--JonathenHarker (talk) 13:26, 21 October 2019 (UTC)