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Latest comment: 11 months ago8 comments2 people in discussion
I don't really understand why of all the countries and cultures, Nazi Germany's hypothetical plans for polygamy after the war need a section. This seems like trivia and not very important trivia at that. Can we delete the section? Or is there a rationale I'm missing? Smooinaghtyn (talk) 01:52, 8 August 2025 (UTC)Reply
You shouldn't undo good faith edits without discussing them.
In an article about actually existing polygamy, it is debatable whether a hypothetical plan for polygamy by a single political ideology is notable enough for inclusion. Your argument comes down to "It's notable because Nazism is notable," which I don't think is very persuasive.
You undid a good-faith edit without discussing it exactly as I did. When people get reverted, it's just more obvious to them their work is being undone, but most edits undo someone else's work. What matters in any case is the quality of the article rather than "who started it" or pesky matters of decorum.
You haven't given any reason worth a damn why "it can stay deleted" yet, I'm afraid. Wikipedia doesn't operate based on magic words, you actually have to interrogate and compare the sources, or else we move on from arguments that will do anything but that. Remsense🌈论01:19, 25 August 2025 (UTC)Reply
Given so far you've said nothing at all about sources yet, I worry what would normally be the process whereby consensus for inclusion would be established (citing additional, potentially multitendency sources on the topic that would demonstrate dueness|) is just going to be me wasting my time and you having made up your mind on what the article should contain before you finished writing your first post here. It would be nice to have some reassurance that's not going to be the case. Remsense🌈论01:24, 25 August 2025 (UTC)Reply
If you can establish with sources that hypothetical Nazi plans on polygamy deserve their own section in an article on polygamy, alongside major actually-existing forms of polygamy, then I'm very open to it and I mean that.
But as it is, it seems like this is the kind of information that should go in an article about Nazism or Nazis' plans for after the war. Having its own section alongside the major historical cultures that actually practiced polygamy seems indeed like undue weight. Smooinaghtyn (talk) 01:27, 25 August 2025 (UTC)Reply
And if we do want to discuss sources, can you explain how a single reference in a biography of Hitler from 1973 justifies a section in the article on polygamy? Do scholars of polygamy think that the Nazis' plans were important enough inclusion in the major treatments of the issue? Smooinaghtyn (talk) 01:31, 25 August 2025 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 1 month ago1 comment1 person in discussion
The paragraph starting with "Recent anthropological data..." contains misquoted information. The first sentence's cited NYT article (number 57) does not contain a quote that supports the statement that "the modern concept of life-long monogamy has been in place for only the last 1,000 years". This quote comes from anthropologist Kit Opie, who has said such things in a different CNN article, but is still not the focus of his research paper that theorizes that the development of monogamy specifically in primates was largely driven by infanticide. That theory has not been generally accepted by the field either, running in contradiction to other literature like the Lukas & Clutton-Brock replies, or recent reviews.
The paragraph may have been conflating different definitions of monogamy in the argument that monogamy may have come as the result of changes in the human relationship with property caused by the Neolithic agricultural revolution. The paper mentioned in the sentence beginning with "genetic evidence..." focuses on reproductive or sexual monogamy, which is separate from the social monogamy that are more relevant to the topic of marriage and "permanent monogamy" or "life-long monogamy", which are also not defined in this article. Although the genetics paper suggests that reproductive monogamy may have occurred more often between 5,000 and 10,000 years ago, the Lukas & Clutton-Brock, review article, and a paper on the neural circuits of monogamous behavior suggest the actual shift from polygamous behavior to monogamous behavior to have occurred much earlier and for reasons not relevant to property ownership.
I believe that for these reasons this paragraph is misleading in the support and premise for its argument and should not be reworded to carefully state that the Neolithic agricultural revolution may have caused changes in social monogamy, but is distinct from the shift from sexual polygamy to monogamy. Milanthekhan (talk) 15:37, 27 June 2026 (UTC)Reply