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How much less bunch of craps would be all of this if someone aplied at least two modern or consence general terms\ besides changing meanings as they were arbitrary employed on antiquity that make it seem medieval society analyzing themselves. —Preceding unsigned comment added by Neurorebel (talk • contribs) 04:51, 23 September 2015 (UTC)Reply
This is the precise question I came here to ask. This article is awful in terms of providing much info on the actual topic. How did someone get to be a free tenant? Why was John considered a serf, but Jim a free tenant? How widespread was this class of people? When did it flourish? How did it come about? In short, I read the article and felt like I learned little. 71.212.167.36 (talk) 22:37, 28 May 2022 (UTC)Reply
Latest comment: 4 years ago1 comment1 person in discussion
"One of the major challenges in examining the free peasants of this era is that no one single definition can be attached to them. The disparate nature of manorial holdings and local laws mean the free tenant in Kent, for example, may well bear little resemblance to the Free Tenant in the Danelaw." What era is this refering to? Is it talking about the Early Middle Ages (i.e. when the Danelaw and Kent were essentially in different countries)? Or is it implying that even after the unification of England and the Norman Conquest, local laws still differed in places that had been separate countries 100+ years before?Iapetus (talk) 13:58, 22 November 2021 (UTC)Reply
