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Talk:Allative case

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Latest comment: 4 years ago by 77.61.180.106 in topic Latin

Another or better Ancient Greek Example?

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The Mycenaean Greek allative in -de is compared to the ancient Greek form Ἀθήναζε, to Athens. I wonder if a better example would be Τροίανδε, to Troy (e.g. Il. 1.129) or Κρήτηνδε, to Crete (Od. 19.186), which preserves the -de ending without any sound change? I'm far from competent in Greek so I don't feel qualified to make a change myself. 158.48.133.1 (talk) —Preceding undated comment added 20:43, 26 December 2013 (UTC)Reply

Allative as a generic case

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I think it would be nice if the article was presented in a more generic tone. While Finnish is one of the best known languages which makes use of the allative, there are many other languages which use it (e.g. Georgian and Wardaman.) The way the article is written implies it is a charateristic of the Finnish language, rather than a linguistic concept which may or may not be present in any given language. I would like to re-write or add to the article myself, though I do not feel confident enough to accurately and concisely explain the concept, and cannot find sufficient examples. Tezp 11:30, 25 May 2007 (UTC)Reply

Contradicts German Wiki

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The G. Wiki says it complements the Ablative case, but here it complements the addessive??? 134.93.59.195 (talk) 19:41, 1 February 2009 (UTC)Reply

Sometimes one word can have multiple "complements". See for example the world "girl", which can contrast with "boy" or with "woman". -Branddobbe (talk) 08:35, 13 May 2010 (UTC)Reply

“-de” in Ancient Greek

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Though I’m not expert, I think “-de” in Ancient Greek means illative, not allative case

For example, πόλεμόνδε is equivalent of “to battle” in English, of ”karan” in Lithuanian, and not “προς πολεμον”, but “εις πολεμον”. Yoshiciv (talk) 08:10, 27 October 2018 (UTC)Reply

Latin

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What about ‘domum’?  Preceding unsigned comment added by 77.61.180.106 (talk) 22:01, 29 July 2021 (UTC)Reply

Plus, according to Accusative case#Latin the accusative functions more like a lative, which might make sense considering that it can be used both for ‘towards’ (allative) and for ‘into’ (illative).  Preceding unsigned comment added by 77.61.180.106 (talk) 15:18, 30 July 2021 (UTC)Reply
And ‘rus’:  Preceding unsigned comment added by 77.61.180.106 (talk) 15:30, 30 July 2021 (UTC)Reply